Reputation: 313
This looks like such an easy problem but still can't figure it out. How do I prove ¬(¬a = a)?
No given premises.
I got this so far (in Fitch):
This is a subproof where I assume the negation of my goal and then try to reach the absurd/contradiction so I can state the negation of my assumption, which would be my goal.
Thanks in advance!
Upvotes: 0
Views: 508
Reputation: 421040
Looking at your screenshot I'd say your =Intro introduces a variable a (that is, a is an object of the domain, rather than a predicate).
I say this because
in all books I've read, the =Intro rule is used for objects rather than predicates, and
for predicates, equals is expressed as "if and only if" which is typically written as ↔ and not =.
So, in other words, the only sensible interpretation of ¬(¬a = a) is that = binds harder than ¬, and the whole formula should be interpreted as ¬(¬(a = a)).
Now you should be able to
Upvotes: 3