Reputation: 101
If f(n) = Θ(n) and
g(n) = Θ(n^2),
then f(n) * g(n) = Θ(n^3)?
Upvotes: 2
Views: 1346
Reputation: 73236
Technically, Θ(n)
is a set of functions, so we say that f
is in Θ(n)
, rather than f(n)
being equal to Θ(n)
.
Hence, the problem we want to investigate is:
Let
h(n) = g(n) · f(n) (*)
Does
f ∈ ϴ(n)
andg ∈ ϴ(n^2)
imply thath ∈ ϴ(n^3)
?
Let's start by loosely stating the definition of Big-ϴ notation
f ∈ ϴ(g(n))
⇨ For some positive constants
k1
,k2
, andn0
, the following holds:k1 · |g(n)| ≤ |f(n)| ≤ k2 · |g(n)|, for all n ≥ n0 (+)
We will make use of this definition below but assume, without loss of generality, that both f(n)
and g(n)
above are non-negative for all n
.
From the above we can state, for some positive set of constants (c1, c2, n0)
and (d1, d2, m0)
, that the following holds
f ∈ ϴ(n): c1 · n ≤ f(n) ≤ c2 · n, for all n ≥ n0 (i)
g ∈ ϴ(n^2): d1 · n^2 ≤ g(n) ≤ d2 · n^2, for all n ≥ m0 (ii)
Now, the set of constants (c1, c2, n0)
(as well as (d1, d2, m0)
) is not unique; if such a set exists, an infinite number of such sets exist. Since f ∈ ϴ(n)
and g ∈ ϴ(n^2)
holds, such sets do exist, and we can, without loss of generality, assume that we can find a set of constants (c1, c2, n0)
and (d1, d2, m0)
such that c1=d1
, c2=d2
and n0=m0
all hold. Hence, we can re-state (i-ii)
as:
f ∈ ϴ(n): c1 · n ≤ f(n) ≤ c2 · n, for all n ≥ n0 (I)
g ∈ ϴ(n^2): c1 · n^2 ≤ g(n) ≤ c2 · n^2, for all n ≥ n0 (II)
for some set of positive constants (c1, c2, n0)
.
Now, since n > n0 > 0
, all terms in the inequalities (I-II)
above are positive, and we can apply (*)
directly:
(I) * (II):
c1^2 · n^3 ≤ f(n) · g(n) ≤ c2^2 · n^3, for all n ≥ n0 (iii)
Now, let k1 = c1^2
and k2=c2^2
, and insert---among with h(n) = f(n) · g(n)
---into (iii)
, yielding
k1 · n^3 ≤ h(n) ≤ k2 · n^3, for all n ≥ n0 (III)
This is, by (+)
, the very definition of h ∈ ϴ(n^3)
, and we have hence solved our problem by showing that:
For
h(n)
as in(*)
:f ∈ ϴ(n)
andg ∈ ϴ(n^2)
implies thath ∈ ϴ(n^3)
Upvotes: 3