Reputation: 49
I can't find a counterexample to this, but I do not know a formal way of proving it. Can anyone lead me in the right direction?
This is "little-o" notation by the way. So a strict upper bound
f(n) = o(g(n)) implies $ 2^{f(n)} = o(2^{g(n}) $
Upvotes: 1
Views: 4218
Reputation: 7996
Here is a counter-example:
f(n) = 1/n
g(n) = 1
We have: f(n)/g(n) -> 0
when n -> oo
, so f
and g
verifies: f(n) = o(g(n))
.
But:
2^f(n) = 2^(1/n) -> 1 when n -> oo
2^g(n) = 2^1 -> 2 when n -> oo
And this leads to:
[2^f(n)]/[2^g(n)] -> 1/2 when n -> oo
This proves that 2^f(n) != o(2^g(n))
.
Upvotes: 1
Reputation: 7
i would like to make correction here, i came across my old notes and realize that what i have stated is completely wrong.
explanation is as following:
lets say f(n)=2n and g(n)=n;
so according to the given problem take power both sides and it will be
Upvotes: 0