Reputation: 166
A question about asymptotic notation. I've seen a lot of explanations of asymptotic notation say:
θ(...)
is analogous to =
O(...)
is analogous to <=
o(...)
is analogous to <
Which would seem to imply that if f(n) = O(g(n))
, then either f(n) = θ(g(n))
or f(n) = o(g(n))
.
Is it possible to have f(n) = O(g(n))
such that neither f(n) = θ(g(n))
nor f(n) = o(g(n))
? If so, what is an example of this? And if not, then why would we ever use O(...)
when θ(...)
or o(...)
are stronger descriptors?
Upvotes: 0
Views: 750
Reputation: 5456
Let f(n)=k!
, when k
is the smallest integer such that n<=k!
.
Then f(n)
is not θ(n)
(since f(k!+1)/(k!+1)
tends to infinity) neither is o(n)
(since f(k!)=k!
), but clearly f(n)=O(n)
(as f(n)<=n
).
Upvotes: 1