Reputation: 994
Let's say we are trying to model a propensity of someone to take the product (e.g a car), and there are only 6 types of car the customer can take (say Car_a, Car_b, Car_c, Car_d, Car_e).
From marketing's perspective, I want to know which customer has a higher likelihood for taking the car (binary classification), and I may also want to know which car the customer is most likely to take (multi-class classification).
I created a binary classification model that predicts the propensity of someone taking a car. E.g Customer_A -> 0.25, let's call it Pr_binary(Customer_A)
I also created a multi-class model with classes Car_a, Car_b, Car_c, Car_d, Car_e, and it tells the likelihood of taking these cars by the customer.
Now, my questions is, will the probability Pr_binary be comparable or equal to sum of [Pr(Car_a) + Pr(Car_b) + Pr(Car_c) + Pr(Car_d) + Pr(Car_e)] of the multi-class model?
Upvotes: 1
Views: 256
Reputation: 1725
No, the expressions you are using are not equivalent.
Assuming (in your example) that there are only 5 types of cars, then the correct way of combining the probabilities would be:
P(buying) = 1 - P(not buying)
where:
P(not buying) = (1 - Pr(Car_a)) * (1 - Pr(Car_b)) * (1 - Pr(Car_c)) * (1 - Pr(Car_d)) * (1 - Pr(Car_d))
That should help you assess if the probabilities are similar in both cases for a specific customer.
Note, however, that this assumes that the output of your multi-class method is a probability and (if you are using a One VS All classifier) that all the individual probabilities are calibrated.
Upvotes: 1