Reputation: 2024
The following example is perfectly legal in Kotlin 1.3.21:
fun <T> foo(bar: T): T = bar
val t: Int = foo(1) // No need to declare foo<Int>(1) explicitly
But why doesn't type inference work for higher order functions?
fun <T> foo() = fun(bar: T): T = bar
val t: Int = foo()(1) // Compile error: Type inference failed...
When using higher order functions, Kotlin forces the call site to be:
val t = foo<Int>()(1)
Even if the return type of foo
is specified explicitly, type inference still fails:
fun <T> foo(): (T) -> T = fun(bar: T): T = bar
val t: Int = foo()(1) // Compile error: Type inference failed...
However, when the generic type parameter is shared with the outer function, it works!
fun <T> foo(baz: T) = fun (bar: T): T = bar
val t: Int = foo(1)(1) // Horray! But I want to write foo()(1) instead...
How do I write the function foo
so that foo()(1)
will compile, where bar
is a generic type?
Upvotes: 7
Views: 1551
Reputation: 12473
To put it in simple (possibly over-simplified) terms, when you call a dynamically generated function, such as the return value of a higher-order function, it's not actually a function call, it's just syntactic sugar for the invoke
function.
At the syntax level, Kotlin treats objects with return types like () -> A
and (A, B) -> C
like they are normal functions - it allows you to call them by just attaching arguments in parenthesis. This is why you can do foo<Int>()(1)
- foo<Int>()
returns an object of type (Int) -> (Int)
, which is then called with 1
as an argument.
However, under the hood, these "function objects" aren't really functions, they are just plain objects with an invoke
operator method. So for example, function objects that take 1 argument and return a value are really just instances of the special interface Function1
which looks something like this
interface Function1<A, R> {
operator fun invoke(a: A): R
}
Any class with operator fun invoke
can be called like a function i.e. instead of foo.invoke(bar, baz)
you can just call foo(bar, baz)
. Kotlin has several built-in classes like this named Function
, Function1
, Function2
, Function<number of args>
etc. used to represent function objects. So when you call foo<Int>()(1)
, what you are actually calling is foo<Int>().invoke(1)
. You can confirm this by decompiling the bytecode.
So what does this have to do with type inference? Well when you call foo()(1)
, you are actually calling foo().invoke(1)
with a little syntactic sugar, which makes it a bit easier to see why inference fails. The right hand side of the dot operator cannot be used to infer types for the left hand side, because the left hand side has to be evaluated first. So the type for foo
has to be explicitly stated as foo<Int>
.
Upvotes: 3
Reputation: 23262
Just played around with it a bit and sharing some thoughts, basically answering the last question "How do I write the function foo
so that foo()(1)
will compile, where bar
is a generic type?":
A simple workaround but then you give up your higher order function (or you need to wrap it) is to have an intermediary object in place, e.g.:
object FooOp {
operator fun <T> invoke(t : T) = t
}
with a foo
-method similar as to follows:
fun foo() = FooOp
Of course that's not really the same, as you basically work around the first generic function. It's basically nearly the same as just having 1 function that returns the type we want and therefore it's also able to infer the type again.
An alternative to your problem could be the following. Just add another function that actually specifies the type:
fun <T> foo() = fun(bar: T): T = bar
@JvmName("fooInt")
fun foo() = fun(bar : Int) = bar
The following two will then succeed:
val t: Int = foo()(1)
val t2: String = foo<String>()("...")
but... (besides potentially needing lots of overloads) it isn't possible to define another function similar to the following:
@JvmName("fooString")
fun foo() = fun(bar : String) = bar
If you define that function it will give you an error similar as to follows:
Conflicting overloads: @JvmName public final fun foo(): (Int) -> Int defined in XXX, @JvmName public final fun foo(): (String) -> String defined in XXX
But maybe you are able to construct something with that?
Otherwise I do not have an answer to why it is infered and why it is not.
Upvotes: 0
Reputation: 141
I am not an expert on how type inference works, but the basic rule is: At the point of use the compiler must know all types in the expression being used.
So from my understanding is that:
foo() <- using type information here
foo()(1) <- providing the information here
Looks like type inference doesn't work 'backward'
val foo = foo<Int>()//create function
val bar = foo(1)//call function
Upvotes: 6